Monday, November 29, 2010

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latest temenos placement papers 2010 freshershub.in



Posted: 28 Nov 2010 07:26 PM PST





TEMNOS Paper Pattern



No Negative Marks So you can attend all the questions

1) Given that black->blue
blue – green
green – yellow
yellow – red
red – violet
violet – black
what is the color of  blood?



Ans: Red



2) Five books A,B,C,D,E are arranged not in order, D is below E, B is above C, A is below B. which book is not top?

Ans: E



3)A man has to travel 5Km. he takes 5min break every hour. His speed is 10Km/hr. what is the time to reach the destinaion ?

Ans: 50 min



4) A frog climbs a 20ft wall, every hour it clim,s 3ft and decliens 2ft. how much time it takes ?

Ans: 18(it reached) not 20.



5) Nepo is three time as old as his son,s age. his father is 40 more than twice is age. what is nepo,s age ?

Ans: 360 (not 120=son,s age)



6) A man travel 3Km north from home, 2Km west,1km north, 5km east. what is the distance from his home now ?

Ans: 3(use pythogorus theorm, draw some extensions, diagonal is 3)



7) A Deer and hare had a race, hare was 16m ahead during start. Distance covered by hare in 6 jumps is equal to 4 jumps of Deer. distance covered in one jump by hare is 1m, and that of deer is 2.5m.find the distance covered by deer to catch hare.

Ans: don,t know



Cool A contractor has to complete, construction of a road in 15 days of length 12km, initialy done by 100 people After 9 days only 5km of work is completed. Now the contractor has to complete the remaning job in same time period. now how many more people he has to take.



Ans: i think 10(don,t forget to subtract 100)



9) There are 6 people A,B,C,D,E,F. A and D are husband and wife, F is the sister of D, c is the grandfather of D, D,s son is police. The two ladies are unemployed now say how is the pilot?



Ans: I don,t know( but E is police, because only E is not mentioned) i think D.



10) if ANTICIPATION is said as ICITNAOINTAP. then what is PRODUCTAVITY.

ANS: i don,t know.



11) A man consumes 20% more, when the product rate decress by 20%. what is his profit?

Ans: -4%( that is he has 4% loss) gain or loss% = (x/10)^2.



12) A train is moving at a speed of 84km/hr, and a man is moving at a speed of 6km/hr in opp. direction. They cross each other a 5sec. What is the length of train ?









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GRE SAMPLE PAPERS Verbal Section: Analogy



Posted: 28 Nov 2010 08:06 AM PST





Verbal Section: AnalogyGRE



Directions:
Each of the GRE sample analogy questions below consists of two words that have a certain relationship to each other, followed by five lettered pairs of related words. Select the lettered pair of words.



Following are some GRE sample analogy questions.





  1. FOOTBALL : GRIDIRON



    1. wrestling : mat

    2. court : tennis

    3. bowling : floor

    4. rugby : arena

    5. baseball : diamond


    Ans : E



  2. EXPURGATE : PASSAGE



    1. abridge : text

    2. filter : water

    3. irritate : wound

    4. burn : book

    5. cancel : plan


    Ans : B



  3. IMPECUNIOUS : HOVEL



    1. progress : prosper

    2. mendicant : evasion

    3. prosperity : poverty

    4. mendacious : cringe

    5. affluent : mansion


    Ans : E



  4. APIARY : BEE



    1. museum : painting

    2. dam : water

    3. arboretum : tree

    4. forum : speech

    5. planetarium : star


    Ans : C



  5. SAND PAPER : ABRASIVE



    1. gasoline : refined

    2. grativity : irritant

    3. polish : floors

    4. acrylic : emulsion

    5. oil : lubricant.


    Ans : E



  6. DIAPHANOUS : CACOPHONOUS



    1. translucent : transparent

    2. transparent : noisy

    3. sheer : opaque

    4. harmonious : discordant

    5. twofold : multiple.


    Ans : B



  7. INFANCY : SENILITY



    1. january : October

    2. incipient : critical

    3. day : night

    4. conclusion : climax

    5. dawn : dusk.


    Ans : E



  8. RIG : CONTEST



    1. solve : conundrum

    2. predict : race

    3. repudiate : thesis

    4. gerrymander : district

    5. incriminate : evidence


    Ans : D



  9. ARBORETUM : TREES



    1. aviary : birds

    2. greenhouse : garden

    3. museum : painters

    4. grove : forest

    5. zoo : range


    Ans : D



  10. BULLET : BARREL



    1. fame : films

    2. train : track

    3. idea : brain

    4. plane : clouds

    5. water : boat


    Ans : B





  1. PARENTHESIS : EXPLANATION



    1. ellipsis : omission

    2. asterisk : exaggeration

    3. synopsis : affectation

    4. apostrophe : annotation

    5. synthesis : interpolation


    Ans : A



  2. CENSUS : POPULATION



    1. manifest : debts

    2. roster : audience

    3. itinerary : journeys

    4. inventory : merchandise

    5. state : incumbents


    Ans : D



  3. STANZA : POEM



    1. mimicry : pantomime

    2. duet : chorus

    3. act : opera

    4. rhyme : verse

    5. pirouette : ballet


    Ans : C



  4. EXHORT : SUGGEST



    1. conspire : plan

    2. tamper : adjust

    3. crave : accept

    4. goad : direct

    5. instruct : teach


    Ans : D



  5. ALACRITY : APATHETIC



    1. compliance : deft

    2. temerity : timid

    3. despotism : arrogant

    4. candor : bungling

    5. tenacity : eager


    Ans : B



  6. FIRE : STORM



    1. whale : minnow

    2. speech : shout

    3. plant : flower

    4. wind : temperature

    5. tornado : hurricane


    Ans : E



  7. COLLUSION : CONSPIRATORS



    1. identification : arbitrators

    2. co-operation : partners

    3. conclusion : messengers

    4. revision : corespondents

    5. attribution : interpreters


    Ans : B



  8. CYNOSURE : BRILLIANT



    1. word : common

    2. student : attentive

    3. rock : large

    4. magnet : attractive

    5. map : legible


    Ans : D



  9. PLEBISCITE : UKASE



    1. lack : abundance

    2. vote : musical instrument

    3. cancel : construct

    4. public : ruler

    5. written : oral


    Ans : D



  10. MENDICANT : IMPECUNIOUS



    1. hat : askew

    2. liar : poor

    3. complainer : petulant

    4. critic : quizzical

    5. philanthrophist : prodigal.


    Ans : C



Each of the GRE sample analogy questions below consists of two words that have a certain relationship to each other, followed by five lettered pairs of related words. Select the lettered pair of words.



Following are some GRE sample analogy questions.





  • RELAPSE : CONVALESCENCE



    1. dissonance : harmony

    2. feudalism : industrialization

    3. repetition : monotony

    4. impasse : debate

    5. recidivism : rehavbilitation.


    Ans : E



  • AMBULATORY : BEDRIDDEN



    1. strong : weak

    2. wheelchair : bed

    3. free : confined

    4. healthy : sick

    5. broken : arm


    Ans : C



  • SUBPOENA : WITNESS



    1. hire : laborer

    2. tax : worker

    3. elect : officer

    4. suborn : judge

    5. conscript : soldier


    Ans : E



  • INVINCIBLE : SUBDUED



    1. expensive : bought

    2. inconsistent : expressed

    3. bolted : separated

    4. impervious : damaged

    5. imprudent : enacted


    Ans : D



  • BURLESQUE : PLAY



    1. operetta : symphony

    2. limerick : sonnet

    3. doggerel : verse

    4. table : narration

    5. sketch : drawing


    Ans : C



  • GROW : BURGEON



    1. flourish : thrive

    2. transport : enrapture

    3. beat : palpitate

    4. evolve : multiply

    5. wrot : decay


    Ans : C



  • EXTROVERT : RETICENT



    1. reprobate : humility

    2. strategist : decisiveness

    3. zealot : loyalty

    4. maverick : conformity

    5. renegade : ambition.


    Ans : D



  • HYGROMETER : BAROMETER



    1. snow : rain

    2. humidity : pressure

    3. water : mercury

    4. temperature : weather

    5. forecast : rain.


    Ans : B



  • EXEMPTION : EXCLUSIONS



    1. discharge : elimination

    2. debarment : prevention

    3. immunity : isolation

    4. forgive : condone

    5. enclosure : open.


    Ans : C



  • FEBRILE : ILLNESS



    1. classic : cultivation

    2. delusional : insanity

    3. eccentric : discrimination

    4. tenacious : astonishment

    5. juvenile : maturity.


    Ans : B



  • CONDUIT : WATER



    1. behaviour : liquid

    2. electricity : television

    3. artery : blood

    4. wire : sound

    5. pump : oil.


    Ans : C



  • BIZARRE : EXOTIC



    1. wild : tame

    2. lively : livid

    3. stage : dancer

    4. commonplace : routine

    5. ordinary : exceptional.


    Ans : D



  • ENTREPRENEUR : LABORER



    1. mediator : conflict

    2. capitalism : communism

    3. profits : wages

    4. arbitrator : capitalist

    5. moonlighting : worker.


    Ans : C



  • ANTIMACASSAR : SOFA



    1. picture : frame

    2. rug : floor

    3. pillow : bed

    4. door : window

    5. table : chair.


    Ans : B



  • NOTABLE : NOTORIOUS



    1. heinous : atrocious

    2. philandering : pleasant

    3. philanthropic : miserly

    4. nefarious : secret

    5. philanthropic : benevolent.


    Ans : E



  • ANGLE : DEGREE



    1. area : square inch

    2. milk : quart

    3. society : classes

    4. letter : alphabet

    5. time : minutes


    Ans : A



  • CONFIRMED : INVETERATE



    1. knowledge : supposed

    2. financial : bankrupt

    3. immature : callow

    4. credible : incredible

    5. careful: punishing


    Ans : B



  • LULLABY : BARCAROLE



    1. birth : marriage

    2. night : morning

    3. cradle : gondola

    4. song : poem

    5. carol : sonneteer


    Ans : C



  • ZOOLOGY : ANIMALS



    1. ecology : pollution

    2. botany : plants

    3. chemistry : atoms

    4. history : people

    5. mathematics : geometry


    Ans : A



  • DORY : VAN



    1. dairy : cow

    2. fish : vehicle

    3. freighter : caisson

    4. runners : wheels

    5. danish : Dutch


    Ans : C



  • BABBLE : TALK



    1. though : blank

    2. look : espy

    3. wink : eye

    4. leer : ogle

    5. simper : smile.


    Ans : E



  • ALCOVE : RECESS



    1. column : entrance

    2. foundation : building

    3. dome : roof

    4. turret : chimney

    5. foyer : ballroom


    Ans : C



  • EQUIVOCATE : COMMITMENT



    1. collaborate : falsification

    2. fabricate : explanation

    3. procrastinate : action

    4. expostulate : confusion

    5. implicate : exposition


    Ans : C



  • MORPHINE : SEDATES



    1. oil : smears

    2. bandage : protects

    3. drug : addicts

    4. liquor : sedates

    5. medicine : soothes


    Ans : D



  • SAW : CARPENTER



    1. Scissors : tailor

    2. Wagon : farmer

    3. Brush : painter

    4. Typewriter : author

    5. Trowel : bricklayer


    Ans : A



  • LURK : WAIT



    1. boost : elevate

    2. deplete : drain

    3. abscond : depart

    4. bilk : cheat

    5. topple : stabilize


    Ans : C



  • ALCHEMY : SCIENCE



    1. nostrum : remedy

    2. sideshow : carnival

    3. ploy : tactic

    4. forgery : imitation

    5. burlesque : comedy


    Ans : A



  • NEEDLE : KNIT



    1. bait : fish

    2. match : fire

    3. loom : weave

    4. soap : wash

    5. bed : sleep


    Ans : C



  • PARQUET : WOOD



    1. color : painting

    2. mosaic : glass

    3. potpourri : medley

    4. collage : tapestry

    5. linoleum : marble


    Ans : B



  • STICKLER : APPROXIMATION



    1. Lluggard : indolence

    2. connoisseur : anachronism

    3. scientist : theorizing

    4. leader : guidance

    5. purist : adulteration


    Ans : E



    1. LOOM : WEAVE



      1. couch : sleep

      2. needle : knit

      3. soap : wash

      4. machine : stitch

      5. bail : fish


      Ans : B



    2. BODY GUARD : PERSON



      1. teacher : pupil

      2. mayor : city

      3. police officer : traffic

      4. soldier : country

      5. secretary : office


      Ans : D



    3. BOUQUET : FLOWERS



      1. corn : husk

      2. woodpile : logs

      3. forest : thicket

      4. mist : fog

      5. drift : snow.


      Ans : B



    4. TRIANGLE : QUADRILATERAL



      1. rectangle : octagon

      2. cone : cube

      3. pentagon : hexagon

      4. plane : solid

      5. regular : symmetrical.


      Ans : C



    5. SARTORIAL : TAILOR



      1. thespian : designer

      2. rhetorical : questioner

      3. pictorial : musician

      4. histrionic : singer

      5. terpsichorear : dancer.


      Ans : E



    6. NECROMANCY : GHOSTS



      1. magic : legerdemain

      2. alchemy : gold

      3. sorcery : spirits

      4. fortune_telling : gypsies

      5. romance : stories.


      Ans : C



    7. DRUM : TYMPANI



      1. piano : orchestra

      2. cornet : percussion

      3. stick : baton

      4. violin : viola

      5. oboe : woodwind.


      Ans : E



    8. MUFFLE : SOUND



      1. conceal : secret

      2. assuage : grief

      3. maul : object

      4. extract : flavor

      5. endure : agony


      Ans : B



    9. CENSORSHIP : INFORMATION



      1. cultivation : erosion

      2. philanthropy : generosity

      3. frugality : constraint

      4. sampling : measurement

      5. sanitation : disease


      Ans : E



    10. DUPLICATE : ALTER



      1. greet : ignore

      2. exchange : return

      3. shake : stabilize

      4. stretch : shrink

      5. eradicate : implicate


      Ans : D



  • Sentence Completions GRE Sample Questions



    Posted: 28 Nov 2010 08:03 AM PST





    GREVerbal Section : Sentence Completions



    Directions:



    Each GRE sample sentence compltion question below has one or two blanks. Each blank shows that something has been omitted. Under each GRE sample sentence completion question five words are given as choice. Choose the one correct word for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentences as a whole.





    1. The – tones of the flute succeeded in – his tense nerves.



      1. rhapsodic – minimising

      2. blatant – enhancing

      3. hovendous – calming

      4. vibrant – portraying

      5. mellifluous – soothing.


      Ans : E



    2. Without the psychiatrist’s promise of confidentiality, trust is – and the patient’s communication limited; even though confidentiality can thus be seen to be precious in thercopy, moral responsibility sometimes requires a willingness to – it.



      1. lost – forget

      2. implicit – extend

      3. impaired – sacrifise

      4. ambiguous – apply

      5. assumed – examine.


      Ans : C



    3. Parts of seventeenth-century Chinese pleasure gardens were not necessarily intended to look -they were designed expressly to evoke the agreeable melancholy resulting from a sense of the – of natural beauty and human glory.



      1. great – immutability

      2. joyful – mortality

      3. conventional – wildness

      4. cheerful – transitoriness

      5. colorful – abstractness.


      Ans : D



    4. Despite the – of many of their colleagues, some scholars have begun to emphasize ”pop culture” as a key for – the myths, hopes, and fears of contemporary society.



      1. pedantry – reinstating

      2. enthusiasm – symbolizing

      3. skepticism – deciphering

      4. antipathy – involving

      5. discernment – evaluating.


      Ans : C



    5. If duty is the natural – of one’s the course of future events, then people who are powerful have duty placed on them whether they like it or not.



      1. outgrowth – control over

      2. arbiter – responsibility for

      3. correlate – understanding of

      4. determinant – involvement in

      5. mitigant – preoccupation with .


      Ans : A



    6. Clearly refuting sceptics, researches have – not only that gravitational radiation exists but that it also does exactly what the theory – it should do.



      1. supposed – asserted

      2. voubted -warranted

      3. assumed – deduced

      4. demonstrated – predicted

      5. estimated – accepted


      Ans : D



    7. The Neolatonists’ conception of a deity, in which perfection was measured by abundant fecundity, was contradicted by that of the Aristotelians, in which perfection was displayed in the – of creation.



      1. variety

      2. economy

      3. profusion

      4. clarity

      5. precision.


      Ans : B



    8. It is a great – to be able to transfer useful genes with as little extra gene material as possible, because the donor’s genome may contain, in addition to desirable genes, many genes with – effects.



      1. Disappointment – superfluous

      2. Convenience – exquisite

      3. Advantage – deleterious

      4. Accomplishment – profound

      5. Misfortune – unpredictable.


      Ans : C



    9. While admitting that the risks incurred by use of the insecticide were not – the manufacturer’s spokesperson argued that effective – were simply not available.



      1. indeterminable – safeguards

      2. unusual – alternatives

      3. inconsequential – substitutes

      4. proven – antidotes

      5. increasing – procedures.


      Ans : C



    10. Human reaction to the realm of though is often as strong as that to sensible presences; our higher moral life is based on the fact that – sensations actually present may have a weaker influence on our action than do ideas of – facts.



      1. emotional – impersonal

      2. familiar : symbolic

      3. disturbing – ordinary

      4. material – remote

      5. defenitive – controvoisial.


      Ans : D



    11. Some scientists argue that carbon compounds play such a central role in life on earth because of the possibility of – resulting from the carbon atom’s ability to form an unending series of different molecules.



      1. variety

      2. stability

      3. deviations

      4. invigorations

      5. reproduction.


      Ans : A



    12. It would be difficult for one so – to be led to believe that all men are equal and that we must disregard race, color and creed.



      1. intolerant

      2. democratic

      3. emotional

      4. patient

      5. broadminded.


      Ans : A



    13. An occasional – remark spoiled the – that made the paper memorable.



      1. colloquial

      2. trite – cliches

      3. urbane – sophisticated

      4. hackneyed – originality

      5. jovial – fun.


      Ans : D



    14. Broadway audiences have become inured to – and so – to be pleased as to make their ready ovations meaningless as an indicator of the quality of the production before them.



      1. cleverness : eager

      2. condescension : disinclined

      3. sentimentality : reluctant

      4. mediocrity : desperate

      5. histrionics : unlikely


      Ans : D



    15. Nineteenth – century scholars, by examining earlier geometric Greek art, found that classical Greek art was not a magical – or a brilliant – blending Egyptian and Assyruin art, but was independently evolved by Greeks in Greece.



      1. conversion – annexation

      2. apparition – amalgam

      3. stratagem – appropriation

      4. paradigm – construct

      5. example – synthesis


      Ans : B



    16. The struggle of the generations is one of the obvious constants of human affairs; therefore, it may be presumptuous to suggest that the rivalry between young and old in western society during the current decade is – critical.



      1. archetypally

      2. perennially

      3. disturbingly

      4. uniquely

      5. cautiously


      Ans : D



    17. Even though in today’s Soviet union the – Muslim clergy have been accorded power and privileges, the Muslim laity and the rank – and – file clergy still. Have little – to practice their religion.



      1. adversaries of – inclination

      2. traditionalists among – incentive

      3. practitioners among – opportunity

      4. leaders of – latitude

      5. dissidents within -obligation


      Ans : D



    18. Unlike the Shakespearean plays, The ”closet dramas” of the nineteenth century were meant to be – rather than –



      1. seen – acted

      2. read – acted

      3. produced – acted

      4. quiet – loud

      5. sophisticated – urbane


      Ans : B



    19. The little – known but rapidly expanding use of computers in mapmaking is technologically similar to the more – uses in designing everything from bolts to satellites.



      1. ingenuous

      2. recent

      3. secure

      4. publicized

      5. successful


      Ans : D



    20. Although his out numbered troops fought bravely, the general felt he had no choice but to – defeat and – a retreat.



      1. oversee – reject

      2. acknowledge – order

      3. hasten – suggest

      4. seek – try

      5. overcome – request


      Ans : B



    Verbal Section : Sentence Completions



    Directions:



    Each GRE sample sentence compltion question below has one or two blanks. Each blank shows that something has been omitted. Under each GRE sample sentence completion question five words are given as choice. Choose the one correct word for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentences as a whole.





    1. No hero of ancient or modern times can surpass the Indian with his lofty contempt of death and the – with which he sustained the cruelest coffliction.



      1. guide

      2. assent

      3. reverence

      4. fortitude

      5. concern


      Ans : D



    2. The hostess attempted to – a romantic atmosphere that would bring the two young people together in –



      1. expand – fealty

      2. present – collusion

      3. simulate – conflict

      4. introduce – cacophony

      5. contrive – matrimony


      Ans : E



    3. Employers who retire people who are willing and able to continue working should realize that – age is not an effective – in determining whether an individual is capable of working.



      1. intellectual – criterion

      2. Chronological – criterion

      3. Physical – barrier

      4. deteriorating – value

      5. chronological – factor


      Ans : B



    4. As the sun rose, the morning mists were borne away on the – like strands of –



      1. whirlwind – flotsam

      2. wind – cactus

      3. morass – tundra

      4. zephyr – gossamer

      5. holocaust – taffeta


      Ans : D



    5. The playwright was known not for his original ideas that had been propounded by others.



      1. rejection

      2. consideration

      3. invention

      4. reiteration

      5. plagiarism


      Ans : E



    6. The gypsy girl, decked out in – finery, and with her disheveled hair streaming over shoulders, was indeed a – sight.



      1. verdant – wistful

      2. sartorial – flagrant

      3. specious – poignant

      4. tawdry – bizarre

      5. opulent – debonair


      Ans : D



    7. Yellow fever, the disease that killed 4,000 Philadelphians in 1793, and so – Memphis, Tennessee, that the city lost its charter, has reappeared after nearly two decades in – in the western hemisphere.



      1. disabled – quarantine

      2. decimated – abeyance

      3. terrorized – contention

      4. ravaged – secret

      5. coupled – quiescence


      Ans : B



    8. The painting was larger than it appeared to be, for hanging in a darkened recess of the chapel, it was – by the perspective.



      1. embellished

      2. improved

      3. jeopardised

      4. aggrandized

      5. diminished


      Ans : E



    9. We have in America – speech that is neither American, Oxford English, nor English but a – of all three.



      1. motley – miracle

      2. nasal – blend

      3. feigned – patchwork

      4. mangled – medley

      5. hybrid – combination


      Ans : E



    10. Old beliefs die hard, even when jobs become – the long – standing fear that unemployment could return at a moments notice –



      1. protected – subsided

      2. vacant – perished

      3. available – receded

      4. plentiful – persisted

      5. easier – charged


      Ans : D



    11. Not only the – are fooled by pcopagandas we can all be misled if we are not –



      1. people – mature

      2. ignorant – cynical

      3. masses – cautious

      4. uncultured – concerned

      5. gullible – wary


      Ans : E



    12. – merciful by nature, he was – toward the murderer.



      1. although – unmoving

      2. while – unjust

      3. truly – indicative

      4. though – kind

      5. albeit – implacable


      Ans : E



    13. When the news of his – with the enemy become known, he was hanged in –



      1. collusion – effigy

      2. conversation’s – earnest

      3. involvement – martyrdom

      4. complacency – retaliation

      5. bickering – response


      Ans : D



    14. He was so – by the interplay of the colors that varied in brilliance and pattern as the music rose and fell, that he asked the price of the device.



      1. overwrought

      2. penalized

      3. repelled

      4. inteugued

      5. penalized


      Ans : D



    15. The absence of a sense of outrage and grief at national tragedy is an – of moral responsibility.



      1. intervention

      2. energising

      3. abdication

      4. administration

      5. actuation.


      Ans : C



    16. In an effort to – its operations, the corporation announced it was acquiring a – company in a different type of manufacturing.



      1. diversify – subsidiary

      2. adumberate – solvent

      3. multiply – protracted

      4. intensify – fluctuating

      5. establish – sequential.


      Ans : A



    17. Samuel Clemens chose the – Mark Twain as a result of his knowledge of river boat piloting.



      1. mountebank

      2. protagonist

      3. misanthrope

      4. hallucination

      5. pseudonym.


      Ans : E



    18. To meet all – a source of – electrical power was added to the train’s engine.



      1. Integuments – parallel

      2. possibilities – incidental

      3. amenities – diverse

      4. contingencies – auxiliary

      5. conveniences – automatic.


      Ans : D



    19. Since the escaping vapors proved to be highly -, measures were at once taken for the – of the experiments.



      1. Volatile – ratification

      2. Observable – insulation

      3. Gaseous – reduction

      4. Noxious – cessation

      5. Incriminating – destruction.


      Ans : D



    20. Eric Fromm does not agree that man is – in Freudian sexual dilemmas for if the – that man creates can be changed for the better, there is hope that the state of man can be changed as well.



      1. Tortured – goals

      2. Trapped – institutions

      3. Caught – symbols

      4. Engulfed – life

      5. Confused – meanings.


      Ans : B



    21. As man reached the stars, a booming population threatened to destroy the – of life on his home planet and even its chances for –



      1. Quality – survival

      2. Basis – growth

      3. Existence – upliftment

      4. chances – improvement

      5. meaning – understanding.


      Ans : A



    22. Until the current warming trend exceeds the range of normal climatic fluctuations, there will be, among scientists, considerable – the possibility that increasing levels of atmosphere Co2 can cause long term warming effects



      1. interest in

      2. uncertainty about

      3. experimentation on

      4. enthusiasm for

      5. worry about


      Ans : B



    23. Having no sense of moral obligation, shipler was as little subject to the – of conscience after he acted as he was motivated by its – before he acted.



      1. balm – eloquence

      2. qualms – atonement

      3. reproaches – prompting’s

      4. rewards – chastisement

      5. ridicule – allure


      Ans : C



    24. Slang is a language that rolls up its sleeves, spits on its hands and –



      1. goes to work

      2. stays cool

      3. embarrasses its user

      4. communicates

      5. puts its foot down


      Ans : B



    25. Famous among job seekers for its – , the company, quite apart from generous salaries, bestowed on its executives annual bonuses and such – as low – interest home mortgages and company cars.



      1. largesse – perquisites

      2. altruism – credits

      3. magnanimity – reparations

      4. discernment – prerogatives

      5. inventiveness – benefits


      Ans : A



    26. Moving and parked, the automobile devours urban land, leaving the buildings as mere – of habitable space in a sea of dangerous and ugly traffic



      1. asylums

      2. remnants

      3. blocks

      4. mountains

      5. islands


      Ans : E



    27. In the current research program, new varieties of apple trees are evaluated under different agricultural – for tree size, bloom density, fruit size,- to various soils, and resistance to pests and disease.



      1. conditions – adaptability

      2. configurations – propensity

      3. circumstances – proximity

      4. auspices – susceptibility

      5. regulations – conformity


      Ans : A



    28. For many young people during the roaring twenties, a disgust with the excesses of American culture – a wanderlust to provoke an exodus abroad.



      1. reflected

      2. stymied

      3. conflicted with

      4. overwhelmed

      5. combined with


      Ans : E



    Quantitative Aptitude Sample Test Paper SBI Clerk Exam



    Posted: 28 Nov 2010 07:39 AM PST





    State Bank of India Clerical Cadre Recruitment Exam 2008 Solved Paper (HELD ON 06-01-2008) Quantitative Aptitude



    Directions—(Q. 81–90) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions ?
    81. (8.2% of 365) – (1.75% of 108) = ?
    (A) 16.02 (B) 28.04
    (C) 42.34 (D) 53.76
    (E) None of these
    82. [(135)2 ÷ 15 ´ 32] ÷ ? = 45 ´ 24
    (A) 18 (B) 24
    (C) 36 (D) 44
    (E) None of these
    83. (96)2 + (63)2 = (?)2 – (111)2 – 8350
    (A) 33856 (B) 30276
    (C) 174 (D) 184
    (E) None of these
    84. 4368 + 2158 – 596 – ? = 3421 + 1262
    (A) 1066 (B) 1174
    (C) 1247 (D) 1387
    (E) None of these
    85. 2172 ÷ ? = 1832 – 956 – 514
    (A) 6 (B) 8
    (C) 10 (D) 12
    (E) None of these
    86. 666.06 + 66.60 + 0.66 + 6.06 + 6 + 60 = ?
    (A) 819.56 (B) 805.38
    (C) 826.44 (D) 798.62
    (E) None of these
    87. 15.594 – 4.312 – 3.517 – 1.689 = ?
    (A) 6.706 (B) 6.760
    (C) 6.670 (D) 6.607
    (E) None of these
    88. 205 ´ ? ´ 13 = 33625 + 25005
    (A) 22 (B) 27
    (C) 33 (D) 39
    (E) None of these
    89. 69 ÷ 3 ´ 0.85 + 14.5 – 3 = ?
    (A) 36.45 (B) 23.85
    (C) 42.95 (D) 18.65
    (E) None of these
    90. (10)24 ´ (10)– 21 = ?
    (A) 3 (B) 10
    (C) 100 (D) 1000
    (E) None of these
    Directions—(Q. 91–95) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number
    series ?
    91. 12 6.5 7.5 12.75 27.5 71.25 ?
    (A) 225.75 (B) 216.75
    (C) 209.75 (D) 236.75
    (E) 249.75
    92. 16 24 36 54 81 121.5 ?
    (A) 182.25 (B) 174.85
    (C) 190.65 (D) 166.55
    (E) 158.95
    93. 12 12 18 45 180 1170 ?
    (A) 13485 (B) 14675
    (C) 15890 (D) 16756
    (E) 12285
    94. 22 23 27 36 52 77 ?
    (A) 111 (B) 109
    (C) 113 (D) 117
    (E) 115
    95. 16 14 24 66 256 1270 ?
    (A) 8564 (B) 5672
    (C) 4561 (D) 7608
    (E) 6340





    SBI



    Bank Exams and Competitive Exams General Knowledge Questions



    Posted: 28 Nov 2010 07:35 AM PST





    bank po1. The only Indian Governor General was—
    (A) C. Rajagopalachari
    (B) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
    (C) Rajendra Prasad
    (D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
    2. . Which plan became the basis for Indian independence ?
    (A) Cripps Plan
    (B) Wavell Plan
    (C) Mountbatten Plan
    (D) None of the above
    3. Which part of Indian Constitution has been described as the soul of the Constitution ?
    (A) Fundamental Rights
    (B) Directive Principle of State Policy
    (C) The Preamble
    (D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
    4. Name the Indian who attended all the Three Round Table Conferences—
    (A) B. R. Ambedkar
    (B) Mahatma Gandhi
    (C) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
    (D) Tej Bahadur Sapru
    5. Rabindranath Tagore relinquished his Nighthood as a measure of protest against—
    (A) Partition of Bengal
    (B) Press Act of 1910
    (C) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
    (D) Salt Laws
    6. The 52nd amendment to the Constitution of India deals with—
    (A) Defection
    (B) Reservation
    (C) Election
    (D) Protection of minorities
    7. The Panchayati Raj was recommended by—
    (A) The Government of India Act, 1935
    (B) The Cripps Mission of 1942
    (C) The Indian Independence Act, 1947
    (D) Balwantrai Mehta Committee Report, 1957
    8. The President of India can nominate—
    (A) 10 members to Rajya Sabha
    (B) 2 members to Rajya Sabha
    (C) 15 members to Rajya Sabha
    (D) 12 members to Rajya Sabha
    9. UNO has fixed the target for ‘Education for All’ till the year—



    (A) 2012
    (B) 2013
    (C) 2014
    (D) 2015
    10. The subjects on which both the Centre and State Governments can legislate are contained in—
    (A) The Union List
    (B) The State List
    (C) The Concurrent List
    (D) Residuary List
    11. Which State Legislative Assembly has the maximum strength (number of members) ?
    (A) Andhra Pradesh
    (B) West Bengal
    (C) Maharashtra
    (D) Uttar Pradesh
    12. The concept of ‘Fundamental Rights’ enshrined in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from which country’s constitution ?
    (A) France
    (B) Britain
    (C) U.S.A.
    (D) Russia
    13. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha has been fixed at—
    (A) 540
    (B) 545
    (C) 552
    (D) 555
    14. The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on—
    (A) August 15, 1947
    (B) June 30, 1948
    (C) November 26, 1949
    (D) January 26, 1950
    15. In India the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee is appointed by—

    (A) President of India
    (B) Prime Minister of India
    (C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
    (D) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
    16. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the introduction of money bill ?
    (A) Money bill is introduced in Rajya Sabha
    (B) It can be introduced in either of the Houses of Parliament
    (C) It cannot be introduced in the Lok Sabha
    (D) It is introduced in the Lok Sabha
    17. Who is the Chairman of the Planning Commission ?

    (A) President
    (B) Prime Minister
    (C) Finance Minister
    (D) Governor of Reserve Bank
    18. The minimum age required for election to Rajya Sabha is—
    (A) 25 years
    (B) 30 years
    (C) 32 years
    (D) 35 years
    19. Which one of the following taxes is levied and collected by the Union but distributed between Union and States ?
    (A) Corporation tax
    (B) Tax on income other than on agricultural income
    (C) Tax on railway fares and freights
    (D) Customs
    20. Sikkim became a new state by–
    (A) 30th Amendment
    (B) 34th Amendment
    (C) 35th Amendment
    (D) 36th Amendment
    21. On which Indian river is the highest bridge of the world being constructed ?
    (A) Chenab
    (B) Satluj
    (C) Jhelum
    (D) Beas
    22. Match ListI (category) with ListII (54th National Film Award winners) and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
    ListI

    (a) Best Feature Film
    (b) Best Popular Film
    (c) Best Children Film
    (d) Best Hindi Film
    ListII
    1. Care of Footpath
    2. Khosla ka Ghosla
    3. Pullijaman
    4. Lage Raho Munnabhai
    Codes :
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (A) 1 3 2 4
    (B) 3 4 1 2



    (C) 3 2 4 1
    (D) 4 2 1 3
    23. In which district of Uttar Pradesh has the first Police Museum of the country been established ?

    (A) Allahabad
    (B) Agra
    (C) Ghaziabad
    (D) Lucknow
    24. The Commercial Banks were Nationalised in—
    (A) 1947
    (B) 1951
    (C) 1969
    (D) 1992
    25. Asia’s first human DNA Bank has been set up in—
    (A) New Delhi
    (B) Hyderabad
    (C) Lucknow
    (D) Mumbai
    26. The distribution of finances between centre and states is done on the recommendation of—

    (A) Finance Ministry
    (B) Finance Commission
    (C) Reserve Bank of India
    (D) NABARD
    27. In which one of the following districts of Uttar Pradesh has the Indian Carpet Technology Institute been established ?
    (A) Agra
    (B) Mirzapur
    (C) Moradabad
    (D) Sant Ravi Das Nagar
    28. Which of the following Banks is first in establishing its branch in China ?

    (A) Bank of Baroda
    (B) Punjab National Bank
    (C) State Bank of India
    (D) UCO Bank
    29. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan covers—

    (A) all children in the age group 3–10
    (B) all children in the age group 4–8
    (C) all children in the age group 5–15
    (D) all children in the age group 6–14
    30. Swavalamban Scheme is concerned with providing—
    (A) employment to rural women folk
    (B) employment to urban women folk
    (C) employment to disabled persons
    (D) providing training and skills to women
    31. Mixed economy means—
    (A) existence of both small and big industries
    (B) existence of both private and public sectors
    (C) existence of both primary and secondary sectors
    (D) none of the above
    32. How many IITs will be set up in the 11th Five Year Plan ?
    (A) 6
    (B) 7
    (C) 8
    (D) 9
    33. Among the following which country has the highest life expectancy at birth (in years) ?
    (A) Japan
    (B) Denmark
    (C) U.S.A.
    (D) Switzerland
    34. Match ListI with ListII and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists— ListI (Place)
    (a) Vishakhapatnam
    (b) Muri
    (c) Gurgaon
    (d) Panki
    ListII (Industry)
    1. Automobile
    2. Shipbuilding
    3. Fertiliser
    4. Aluminium
    Codes :
    —(a) (b) (c) (d)
    (A) 2 3 4 1
    (B) 2 4 1 3
    (C) 1 2 3 4
    (D) 2 4 3 1
    35. Which among the following is a public sector Commercial Bank ?
    (A) ICICI Bank
    (B) HDFC Bank
    (C) Indian Overseas Bank
    (D) UTI Bank
    36. Match ListI with ListII and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists— ListI (Mineral Production)
    (a) Mineral Oil
    (b) Gypsum
    (c) Gold
    (d) Bauxite
    ListII (State)
    1. Orissa
    2. Karnataka
    3. Gujarat
    4. Rajasthan
    Codes :
    —(a) (b) (c) (d)
    (A) 1 2 3 4
    (B) 2 1 4 3
    (C) 4 3 1 2
    (D) 3 4 2 1
    37. Consider the following statements—
    Assertion (A) : Atomic energy in India promises to meet the future energy demand of the
    country.
    Reason (R) : Atomic minerals are ubiquitous in India.
    Select the correct answer from the code given below :
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
    (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
    38. Which of the following states has the longest coast line ?
    (A) Gujarat
    (B) Maharashtra
    (C) Kerala
    (D) Tamil Nadu
    39. Which of the following rock systems in India is the main source of coal deposits ?
    (A) Dharwar system
    (B) Gondwana system
    (C) Cudappa system
    (D) Vindhyan system
    40. Laterite soil is found in—
    (A) Uttar Pradesh
    (B) Himachal Pradesh
    (C) Punjab
    (D) Maharashtra
    41. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
    (A) Kirghiz — Central Asia
    (B) Masai — West Africa
    (C) Red Indians — North America
    (D) Eskimos — Greenland
    42. Chilka lake is situated in—
    (A) West Bengal
    (B) Andhra Pradesh
    (C) Orissa
    (D) Tamil Nadu
    43. Damodar is a tributary of river—
    (A) Ganga
    (B) Hugli
    (C) Padma
    (D) Suvarn Rekha
    44. Sangam Yojana is concerned with—
    (A) provision for clean drinking water
    (B) provision for cleaning rivers
    (C) promoting communal harmony
    (D) helping the invalids
    45. National Dairy Development Board is located in—
    (A) Anand
    (B) Gandhinagar
    (C) Vadodara
    (D) Valsad
    46. Economic Planning is included in the Constitution of India in—
    (A) Union List
    (B) State List
    (C) Concurrent List
    (D) Special List
    47. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
    (A) Kimberley — Diamond
    (B) Havana — Meat packing
    (C) Milan — Silk
    (D) Sheffield — Cutlery
    48. Dudhawa National Park is situated in the district of—
    (A) Lalitpur
    (B) Pilibhit
    (C) Lakhimpur Khiri
    (D) Sonbhadra
    49. The correct descending order of major states of India in terms of density of population (2001) is—
    (A) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar, Kerala
    (B) West Bengal, Kerala, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh
    (C) Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, West Bengal, Bihar
    (D) West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala
    50. The major coffee producing state in India is—
    (A) Kerala
    (B) Karnataka
    (C) Tamil Nadu
    (D) West Bengal
    51. Which one of the following is the most urbanized states of India according to 2001 Census ?
    (A) Gujarat
    (B) West Bengal
    (C) Maharashtra
    (D) Kerala
    52. According to 2001 Census the least densely populated states of India in ascending order are—
    (A) Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Nagaland and Sikkim
    (B) Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram and Sikkim
    (C) Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Sikkim and Nagaland
    (D) Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Nagaland
    53. Among the following which fruit is a rich source of iron ?
    (A) Jamun
    (B) Karonda
    (C) Loquat
    (D) Guava
    54. Vitamin which promotes wound healing is—
    (A) Vitamin B
    (B) Vitamin C
    (C) Vitamin A
    (D) Vitamin D
    55. Bauxite is an ore of—
    (A) Aluminium
    (B) Boron
    (C) Lead
    (D) Silver
    56. Which of the following methods is used to determine the age of the earth ?
    (A) Carbon dating
    (B) Germanium dating
    (C) Uranium dating
    (D) All the above
    57. Name the gas which under normal conditions produces pollution in the atmosphere ?
    (A) Carbon monoxide (CO)
    (B) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
    (C) Nitrogen (N2)
    (D) Oxygen (O2)
    58. Electronvolt is the unit for—
    (A) energy
    (B) charge of electron
    (C) potential difference
    (D) power
    59. An atom bomb is based on the principle of—
    (A) nuclear fission
    (B) nuclear fusion
    (C) nuclear spallation
    (D) none of these
    60. Titan is the largest moon or satellite of—
    (A) Mars
    (B) Venus
    (C) Jupiter
    (D) Saturn
    61. The most toxic metal pollutant of the automobile exhaust is—
    (A) Copper
    (B) Lead
    (C) Cadmium
    (D) Mercury
    62. Which of the following disease is caused by a virus ?
    (A) Diphtheria
    (B) Malaria
    (C) Cholera
    (D) Hepatitis
    63. If the circumference of a circle is increased by 50%, then the area will be increased by—
    (A) 50%
    (B) 100%
    (C) 125%
    (D) 225%
    64. The term ‘Siamese Twins’ is used for—
    (A) twins in which there is one male and one female
    (B) twins in which both are females
    (C) twins suffering from a common disease of siam
    (D) twins physically attached to each other
    65. Every solar eclipse takes place on—
    (A) full moon only
    (B) new moon only
    (C) both (A) and (B)
    (D) neither (A) nor (B)
    66. The headquarter of which of the following is correctly given ?
    (A) UNO — London
    (B) WTO — Geneva
    (C) ILO — New York
    (D) FAO — Chicago
    67. White bud of maize is caused due to deficiency of—
    (A) N
    (B) Zn
    (C) Cu
    (D) Mn
    68. A number is 20 more than its 20%. The number is—
    (A) 20
    (B) 25
    (C) 50
    (D) 80
    69. The train which was started on April 14, 2008 between Kolkata (India) and Dhaka (Bangladesh) has been named—
    (A) Sadbhavna Express
    (B) Shanti Express
    (C) Maitri Express
    (D) Aman Express
    70. Thailand’s Ponsana Boonsak won the men’s singles of the India open Grand Prix Badminton championship held in Hyderabad in April 2008. In the final he defeated—
    (A) Anand Pawar
    (B) Arvind Bhat
    (C) Chetan Anand
    (D) Zhendong Guo
    71. Indian Institute of Remote sensing is located at—
    (A) Ahmedabad
    (B) Dehradun
    (C) Shriharikota
    (D) None of the above
    72. The winner of the 62nd Santosh Trophy, held in June 2008, was—
    (A) Karnataka
    (B) West Bengal
    (C) Services
    (D) Punjab
    73. Who among the following was the Chief Guest on the occasion of Republic Day, 2008 ?
    (A) British Prime Minister Gardon Brown
    (B) French President Nicolas Sarcozy
    (C) Danish Prime Minister Anders Fogh Rasmussen
    (D) Russian President Vladimir Putin
    74. In April 2008 fourth convention of Nuclear safety was held in—
    (A) Vienna
    (B) London
    (C) Paris
    (D) Rome
    75. Who among the following received Padma Vibhushan Award of 2008 ?
    1. Madhuri Dixit
    2. Ratan Tata
    3. Sachin Tendulkar
    4. Viswanathan Anand
    Select the correct answer from the code given below—
    (A) 1, 2
    (B) 2, 3
    (C) 3, 4
    (D) 2, 3, 4
    76. March 24 (2008) was observed as—
    (A) World AIDS Day
    (B) World Disabled Day
    (C) World Environment Day
    (D) World Tuberculosis (TB) Day
    77. Which one of the following pairs of Harappan sites and their locations is not correctly matched ?
    (A) Alamgirpur — Uttar Pradesh
    (B) Banawali — Haryana
    (C) Diamabad — Maharashtra
    (D) Rakhigarhi — Rajasthan
    78. Jivaka, the famous physician of the time of Gautama Buddha, was associated with the court of
    (A) Bimbisara
    (B) Chanda Pradyota
    (C) Prasenajeta
    (D) Udayana
    79. After President’s signature on the recommendation of Delimitation Commission, Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies with certain exemptions, will be redefined. Which of the following are exempted ?
    1. Arunachal Pradesh and Manipur
    2. Assam
    3. Nagaland
    4. Jharkhand
    Select the correct answer from the code given below—
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 and 3
    (C) 3 and 4
    (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    80. The winner of French Open, 2008 (Ladies singles) was—
    (A) Dinara Safina
    (B) Ana Ivanovic
    (C) Jelena Jankovic
    (D) Svetlana Kuznetsova
    81. Who among the following was of the view that the Earth revolves round the Sun ?

    (A) Aryabhatta
    (B) Brahmagupta
    (C) Varahamihira
    (D) None of the above
    82. What is the difference (in years) between the Vikrama and Saka eras ?
    (A) 57 years
    (B) 78 years
    (C) 135 years
    (D) 320 years
    83. Who among the following rulers paid attention to the water resource management in Girnar region some centuries before the Christian era ?
    1. Mahapadma Nanda
    2. Chandragupta Maurya
    3. Ashoka
    4. Rudradaman
    Select the correct answer from the code given below—
    (A) 1, 2
    (B) 2, 3
    (C) 3, 4
    (D) 2, 3, 4
    84. Ptolemy Philadelphus with whom Ashoka had diplomatic relations was the ruler of—
    (A) Cyrene
    (B) Egypt
    (C) Macedonia
    (D) Syria
    85. The inscription belonging to which one of the following dynasties confirms the tradition that Lumbini was the birth place of Sakyamuni Buddha ?
    (A) Maurya
    (B) Sunga
    (C) Satavahana
    (D) Kushana



    86. Which literature had its classical age under Krishnadeva Raya, the famous Vijayanagara king ?
    (A) Konkani
    (B) Malayalam
    (C) Tamil
    (D) Telugu
    87. The city of Jaunpur was founded by—
    (A) MohammadbinTughlaq
    (B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
    (C) Ibrahim Shah Sharqi
    (D) Sikandar Lodi
    88. The department of Public Works was established for the first time by—
    (A) Alauddin Khalji
    (B) Balban
    (C) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
    (D) Iltutmish
    89. . Who were the ‘Nayanars’ ?
    (A) Saivites
    (B) Saktas
    (C) Vaishnavites
    (D) Sun worshippers
    90. Who among the following kings had strong leaning towards Jainism ?
    (A) Dasratha
    (B) Brihadratha
    (C) Kharavela
    (D) Huvishka
    91. Which one of the following rulers had granted Diwani to the East India Company ?
    (A) Farrukhsiyar
    (B) Shah AlamI
    (C) Shah AlamII
    (D) Shujaud Daula
    92. The transfer of capital of British India from Calcutta to Delhi was effected during the period of
    (A) Lord Minto
    (B) Lord Hardinge
    (C) Lord Chelmsford
    (D) Lord Reading
    93. The Durand line demarcated India’s border with—
    (A) Afghanistan
    (B) Burma
    (C) Nepal
    (D) Tibet
    94. What was the rate of exchange between the Copper Dam and Silver Rupaya under Sher Shah ?

    (A) 16 : 1
    (B) 32 : 1
    (C) 40 : 1
    (D) 64 : 1
    95. Arrange the following events of Akbar’s reign in a chronological order :
    1. Abolition of Jazia
    2. Construction of Ibadatkhana
    3. Signing of Mahzar
    4. Foundation of DiniIlahi
    Select the correct answer from the code given below—
    (A) 1, 2, 3, 4
    (B) 2, 3, 4, 1
    (C) 1, 3, 2, 4
    (D) 3, 4, 1, 2
    96. After the arrest of Gandhiji during the Salt Satyagraha, who took his place as leader of the movement ?
    (A) Abbas Tyabji
    (B) Abul Kalam Azad
    (C) Jawaharlal Nehru
    (D) Vallabhbhai Patel
    97. Which one of the following revolutionaries involved in Kakori case had escaped the trial ?
    (A) Sachindra Nath Bakshi
    (B) Mukundi Lal
    (C) Chandra Shekhar Azad
    (D) Manmath Nath Gupta
    98. Who changed the name of Hindustan Republic Association founded by Sachindra Sanyal to ‘Hindustan Socialist Republic Association’ ?
    (A) Ras Behari Bose
    (B) Batukeshwar Datt
    (C) Sardar Bhagat Singh
    (D) Chandra Shekhar Azad
    99. Which one of the following revolutionaries was executed in the Gorakhpur Jail ?
    (A) Ramprasad Bismil
    (B) Rajendra Lahiri
    (C) Roshan Singh
    (D) Ashfaqullah Khan
    100.Whose sustained efforts led to the establishment of the first women’s university in Bombay ?
    (A) Dayaram Gidumal
    (B) D. K. Karve
    (C) Ramabai
    (D) Mahadev Govind Ranade
    Answers
    1. (A) 41. (B) 81. (A)
    2. (C) 42. (C) 82. (C)
    3. (D) 43. (B) 83. (D)
    4. (A) 44. (D) 84. (B)
    5. (C) 45. (A) 85. (A)
    6. (A) 46. (C) 86. (D)
    7. (D) 47. (C) 87. (B)
    8. (D) 48. (C) 88. (C)
    9. (D) 49. (B) 89. (A)
    10. (C) 50. (B) 90. (C)
    11. (D) 51. (C) 91. (C)
    12. (C) 52. (C) 92. (B)
    13. (C) 53. (A) 93. (A)
    14. (C) 54. (C) 94. (C)
    15. (C) 55. (A) 95. (A)
    16. (D) 56. (C) 96. (A)
    17. (B) 57. (A) 97. (A)
    18. (B) 58. (A) 98. (C)
    19. (B) 59. (A) 99. (A)
    20. (C) 60. (D) 100.(B)
    21. (A) 61. (B)
    22. (B) 62. (D)
    23. (C) 63. (D)
    24. (C) 64. (D)
    25. (C) 65. (B)
    26. (B) 66. (B)
    27. (D) 67. (B)
    28. (C) 68. (B)
    29. (D) 69. (C)
    30. (D) 70. (C)
    31. (B) 71. (D)
    32. (C) 72. (D)
    33. (A) 73. (B)
    34. (B) 74. (A)
    35. (C) 75. (B)
    36. (D) 76. (D)
    37. (C) 77. (D)
    38. (A) 78. (A)
    39. (B) 79. (D)
    40. (D) 80. (B)



    Bank Probationary Officers Question Paper and Answers



    Posted: 28 Nov 2010 07:33 AM PST





    Indian Overseas Bank PO Exam. 2008 Solved Paper



    General Awareness
    1. As we all know rise of theBRICs has left a vast impact on almost all aspects of the global economy. However, which of the following cannot be called as the direct effect(s) ofRise of the BRICs on global/other powerful economy/economies ?
    1. Countries like China wish to learn more about outsourcing from India.
    2. It has made countries to suffer from Sub-prime Crisis.
    3. EURO has become a powerful currency and many non-Euro countries are inSwap Agreement with various nations.
    (A) Only 1
    (B) Only 2
    (C) Only 3
    (D) All 1, 2 and 3
    (E) None of these
    2. As per the reports published in the newspapers/journals how much amount the Govt. of India is planning to infuse in Public Sector Banks to make them competitive and strong globally ?
    About
    (A) Rs. 10,000 crore
    (B) Rs. 15,000 crore
    (C) Rs. 20,000 crore
    (D) Rs. 25,000 crore
    (E) Rs. 30,000 crore
    3. What is the maximum stake the Govt. of India has in any public sector bank at present ?
    (A) 40%
    (B) 49%
    (C) 50%
    (D) 64%
    (E) 74%
    4. Which of the following is not a major highlight of the Union Budget 2008-09 ?
    1. A target of Rs. 280 lakhs crore is fixed for providing credit to agriculture sector.
    2. Limit of the Banking Cash Transaction Tax is raised from present 1% to 15%.
    3. PAN requirement is not mandatory for financial transactions. Other Ids are also acceptable.
    (A) Only 1
    (B) Only 2
    (C) Only 3
    (D) Both 2 and 3
    (E) All 1, 2 and 3



    5. As per the news in major financial newspapers aRashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana is launched in Delhi and
    Haryana States for members of unorganized sectors. Under the scheme each family is likely to get the benefit of
    Rs.
    (A) 15,000
    (B) 20,000
    (C) 25,000
    (D) 30,000
    (E) 50,000
    6. As proposed in the Union Budget 2008-09 a Risk Capital Fund is set up by the Govt. of India. Who amongst the following will maintain and operate that fund ?
    (A) NABARD
    (B) SIDBI
    (C) ECGC
    (D) RBI
    (E) None of these
    7. As per the Economic Survey 2007-08 presented in the Lok Sabha in February 2008, what has been the percentage growth in Bank credit ? About
    (A) 10%
    (B) 15%
    (C) 18%
    (D) 21%
    (E) 26%
    8. As per the budget of the Indian Railways for 2008-09 the operating ratio of the railways has
    (A) Improved only by 05%
    (B) Decreased by 05%
    (C) Remained at the same level on which it was in 2007-08
    (D) Reached at the level of 81%
    (E) Reduced to the level of 63% which was the level of 2000-01
    9. The government of India has launched a new scheme for theGirl Child. What is the name of the scheme ?
    (A) Raj Lakshmi
    (B) Rani Bitia
    (C) Dhan Lakshmi
    (D) Aanandita
    (E) None of these
    10. The President of India recently signed the much-awaited notification for the implementation of the suggestions made by theDelimitation Commission. What will be the effect of this notification ?
    (A) Parliamentary and Assembly constituencies will be redefined
    (B) Candidates from SC/ST categories will get all benefits for another 15 years time
    (C) The boundaries of the National Capital, New Delhi will be extended further
    (D) Operations of the Cooperative Banks and Societies will not be limited to the state of their origin. They will also be like Public
    Sector Banks
    (E) None of these
    11. As per the new policy the number of Judges in the Supreme Court would be now
    (A) 21
    (B) 25
    (C) 26
    (D) 30
    (E) 31
    12. As per the reports published in the newspapers the banks, particularly public sector banks are tying up with various rating agencies for providing a qualitative assessment of the credit needs of the borrowers. Which amongst the following is/are such credit rating agencies in India ?
    1. CARE
    2. CRISIL
    3. ULIP
    (A) Only 1
    (B) Only 2
    (C) 1 and 2 only
    (D) Only 3
    (E) All 1, 2 and 3
    13. As per the newspaper reports the RBI is planning to introducePlastic Currency Notes. What is/are the benefits of Plastic Notes ?
    1. Their Shelf life will be longer.
    2. It will replace plastic money or credit, debit cards which are giving birth to many fraudulent practices.
    3. Printing will be cheaper.
    (A) Only 3
    (B) Only 2
    (C) Only 1
    (D) All 1, 2 and 3
    (E) None of these
    14.Sub Prime Lending is a term applied to the loans made to
    (A) Those borrowers who do not have a good credit history
    (B) Those who wish to take loan against the mortgage of tangible assets
    (C) Those who have a good credit history and are known to bank since 10 years
    (D) Those borrowers who are most preferred customers of the Bank



    (E) None of these
    15. As per the reports published in various journals and newspapers thesmall borrowers in rural areas still prefer to take informal route for their credit needs. Which of the following is theinformal route of credit in financial sector ?
    (A) Credit cards
    (B) Loan against gold from financial institute
    (C) Debit cards
    (D) Money lender
    (E) None of these
    16. The Planning Commission of India has set up a 12 member committee on financial sector reforms. Who is the Chairman of the Committee ?
    (A) Janki Raman
    (B) Raghuram Rajan
    (C) Rakesh Mohan
    (D) K. V. Kamath
    (E) None of these
    17. Basel-II norms are associated with which of the following aspects of the banking industry ?
    (A) Risk management
    (B) Manpower planning
    (C) Retirement benefits for the employees
    (D) Corporate Governance
    (E) None of these
    18. What is meant by Underwriting the term frequently used in financial sector ?
    (A) Under valuation of the assets
    (B) The Act of taking on a risk for a fee
    (C) Giving a Guarantee that a loan will not become a bad loan
    (D) The act of permission to float an IPO
    (E) None of these



    Union Bank of India Clerk-Cum-Cashier Written Exam Pattern and Selection Procedure



    Posted: 28 Nov 2010 07:30 AM PST





    uninoUnion Bank of India Clerk-Cum-Cashier Exam Scheme and Selection Procedure



    WRITTEN EXAMINATION / TEST:



    (A) Objective Test – 200 Questions – 200 Marks (Duration: Composite 95 Minutes)





















































    Sr.No. Name of the Test Paper No. of Questions & Marks
    1. Test of Reasoning 50 questions carrying 75 marks.
    2. Test of Numerical Ability 50 questions carrying 75 marks.
    3. Test of General Awareness 50 questions carrying 50 marks.
    4. Test of English Language** **50 questions carrying 50 marks.
    Composite 95 Minutes Duration 200 questions carrying 200 marks.


    The candidate shall be required to qualify in each Objective Test as per cut-off mark determined on the basis of Performance in each test, subject to a minimum of 40% (35% for Reserved Category) in the aggregate of 200 marks of the Objective Test. Candidates failing to obtain the minimum qualifying marks will not be declared to have cleared the Objective Test. **The Test of English Language is for ‘qualifying purpose’ only. Hence, though the candidate has also to pass in the Test of English Language, the marks obtained in the Test will not be reckoned in the aggregate of 200 marks of the written examination, for the purpose of Merit Ranking.
    (B) Objective Test on Computer Knowledge – One paper – 50 Marks (Duration: 30 Minutes)
    In addition to the Objective Test assessing aptitude, there will be one more Objective Test on Computer Knowledge comprising 50 Marks, consisting of compulsory questions to assess the computer knowledge of the candidate. The minimum passing marks will be 50% (45% for Reserved Category). The Marks scored by the candidate will rank for Merit Ranking.
    THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED IN THE OBJECTIVE TEST WHICH WILL RESULT IN NEGATIVE MARKS FOR EVERY WRONG ANSWER @ ONE-FOURTH OR 0.25 OF THE MARKS ASSIGNED TO THAT QUESTION. If the total of the penalty for a test is in fraction, the marks obtained will be rounded off to the nearest integer.
    (C) Use of a Scribe / Paper Writer:
    A SCRIBE / WRITER may be used to write the written test / examination, on behalf of PWD, i.e., Visually Impaired (VI) candidate [Blind] & Orthopaedically Challenged (OC) candidate [whose writing speed is affected by Cerebral Palsy]. A Candidate using a Scribe is required to indicate the same appropriately in the Application Form.
    In all such cases where a Scribe is used, the following rules will apply:
    1. The candidate will have to arrange his/her own Scribe at his/her own cost.
    2. The Scribe, where s/he assists in writing, should be from an academic stream different from that of the candidate, in case of Graduate Candidates any academic stream.
    3. The academic qualification of the Scribe should be one grade lower than the eligibility criteria stipulated for the post, i.e., where the eligibility criteria stipulated is Graduation, the scribe’s qualification should not be more than HSC / XIth / PUC and should possess marks less than the candidate and not more than 60% in his own academic stream.
    4. Both the candidate as well as the Scribe will have to give a suitable undertaking confirming that the Scribe fulfils all the above stipulated eligibility criteria. In case it later transpires that the scribe did not fulfill any of the laid down eligibility criteria or had suppressed material facts, the candidature of the applicant will stand cancelled, irrespective of the result of the written examination.
    5. Candidates who use a Scribe will be eligible for extra time @ 20 minutes for every one hour of the examination.
    (II) : PERSONAL INTERVIEW.
    A Personal Interview of 50 marks shall be conducted to assess the candidates’ academic record, power of expression, clarity of thought, qualities of leadership, extra curricular activities, hobbies, general demeanour, behaviour, communication skills, etc. The minimum qualifying marks for the Personal Interview would be 50% marks (45%marksforReserved Category Candidates).



    NOTE: The Bank reserves the absolute right to decide as to whether to hold all or any of the modes of Written Test & / or Group Discussion & /or Personal Interview for selection of the candidates to the respective post. The Bank also reserves the right to alter the structure of the written examination depending upon factors like number of eligible applications, etc.



    Union Bank of India Clerk-Cum-Cashier Exam PApers



    Posted: 28 Nov 2010 07:28 AM PST





    uninoUnion Bank of India Clerk-Cum-Cashier Exam Question Papers



    REASONING
    I. In a certain code BELOW is written as FCKVN. How is GIVEN written in that code?
    (1) JHWMD (2) HJUMD
    (3) JHMUD (4) JHTJMD
    (5) None of these
    2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the world SPLENIC each of which has as many
    letters between them in the word as there are between them in the English alphabet?
    (1) Four (2) Two
    (3) Three
    (4) One
    (5) None of these
    3. If’x’ neans ‘÷‘, ‘÷‘means ‘+‘, ‘+‘ means ‘—‘ and — means ‘x’, then ________
    2_50+40x 10 ÷96=?
    (1) 104 (2) 98 (3) 182 (4) 192 (5) None of these
    4. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 82615943 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are rearrangement in ascending order within the number?
    (1) Three (2) One
    (3) Four (4) Two
    (5) None of these
    5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
    (1) 84 (2) 76 (3) 56 (4) 24 (5) 94
    6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the English
    alphabet and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
    (1) FL (2) NR (3) TX (4) BG (5) DH
    Directions (7-11) : Study carefuHy the following arrangement of letters, digits and symbols and answer the questions given below
    £LMP2=3VD*9CF@÷ 4NT$7W ?HK6
    7. If all the digits are removed from the arrangement, then which of the following will be the 6th to the left of the 14th element from the left end?
    () * (2) D (3) C (4) V
    (5) None of these
    8. If all the letters are removed from the arrangement, then which of the following will be the 8th to the right of the 13th element from the right end?
    (1) 4 (2) ÷ (3) $ (4) @
    (5) None of these ‘
    9. How many such symbols are there in the arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a letter but not immediately preceded by a digit?



    (1) Nil (2) One
    (3) Two (4) Three
    (5) None of these
    10. ‘M=2’ : ‘V9*’ in the arrangement in the same way as ‘@N4’:?
    (1) $ ? 7 (2) TW7
    (3) TW$ (4) 7HW
    (5) None of these
    11. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the position of their elements in the arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
    (1) LM
    (2) 9F4*
    (3) VDC3
    (4) ÷$@
    (5) 7WKS



    Indian Bank (PO) Exam English Language Solved Papers



    Posted: 28 Nov 2010 07:24 AM PST





    indian bankDirections—(Q. 1–5) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase
    given in bold in the following sentence to make it meaningful and grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer. 1. We have accepted over two billion dollars from them yet it is been used to build hospital in the area—
    (A) that is yet to use
    (B) although it has been used
    (C) not yet being used
    (D) which will be used
    (E) No correction required
    Ans : (C)
    2. People have respond in favour the government’s efforts to resolve the budget crisis—
    (A) favourably responded
    (B) response in favour of
    (C) responded favourably to
    (D) been responding favourably
    (E) No correction required
    Ans : (C)
    3. Striking this deal will enable the company to expand its operations in Europe—
    (A) strike this deal that
    (B) to strike off this deal
    (C) by striking this deal to
    (D) this deal was struck which
    (E) No correction required
    Ans : (E)
    4. We admire they are taking this step despite the numerous risks involved—
    (A) them to take
    (B) them for taking
    (C) that they have taken over
    (D) how their taking of
    (E) No correction required
    Ans : (B)
    5. The management has been left with no option else to change the branch timings to avoid losing
    business.
    (A) but to change
    (B) except the change of
    (C) unless it changes with
    (D) other than the changing
    (E) No correction required



    Ans : (A)
    Directions—(Q. 6 –20) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions—
    The great fear in Asia a short while ago was that the region would suffer through the wealth destruction already taking place in the U.S. as a result of the financial crisis. Stock markets tumbled as exports plunged and economic growth deteriorated. Lofty property prices in China and elsewhere looked set to bust as credit tightened and buyers evaporated. But with surprising speed, fear in Asia swung back to greed as the region shows signs of recovery and property and stock prices are soaring in many parts of Asia.
    Why should the sharp Asian turnaround be greeted with scepticism ? Higher asset prices mean households feel wealthier and better able to spend, which could further fuel the region ’s nascent rebound. But just as easily, Asia could soon find itself saddled with overheated markets similar to the U.S. housing market. In short the world has not changed, it has just moved places.
    The incipient bubble is being created by government policy. In response to the global credit crunch of 2008, policy makers in Asia slashed interest rates and flooded financial sectors with cash in frantic attempts to keep loans flowing and economies growing. These steps were logical for central bankers striving to reverse a deepening economic crisis. But there’s evidence that there is too much easy money around. It’s winding up in stocks and real estate, pushing prices up too far and too fast for the underlying economic fundamentals. Much of the concern is focused on China, where government stimulus efforts have been large and effective. Money in China has been especially easy to find. Aggregate new bank lending surged 201% in the first half of 2009 from the same period a year earlier, to nearly $ 1.1 trillion. Exuberance over a quick recovery –which was given a boost by China ’s surprisingly strong 7.9% GDP growth in the second quarter–has buoyed investor sentiment not just for stocks but also for real estate.
    Former U.S. Federal Reserve Chairman Alan Greenspan argued that bubbles could only be recognised in hindsight. But investors –who have been well schooled in the dangers of bubbles over the past decade are increasingly wary that prices have risen too far, and that the slightest bit of negative economic news could knock markets for a loop. These fears are compounded by the possibility that Asia’s central bankers will begin taking steps to shut off the money. rumours that Beijing was on the verge of tightening credit led to Shanghai stocks plunging 5%. Yet many economists believe that, “there is close to a zero possibility that the Chinese government will do anything this year that constitutes tightening.” And without a major shift in thinking, the easy money conditions will stay in place. In a global economy that has produced more dramatic ups and downs than anyone thought Former U.S. Federal Reserve Chairman Alan Greenspan argued that bubbles could only be recognised in hindsight. But investors –who have been well schooled in the dangers of bubbles over the past decade are increasingly wary that prices have risen too far, and that the slightest bit of negativeeconomic news could knock markets for a loop. These fears are compounded by the possibility that Asia’s central bankers will begin taking steps to shut off the money. rumours that Beijing was on the verge of tightening credit led to Shanghai stocks plunging 5%. Yet many economists believe that, “there is close to a zero possibility that the Chinese government will do anything this year that constitutes tightening.” And without a major shift in thinking, the easy money conditions will stay in
    place. In a global economy that has produced more dramatic ups and downs than anyone thought possible over the past two years, Asia may be heading for another disheartening plunge.
    6. To which of the following has the author attributed the 2008 Asian financial crisis ?
    (1) Reluctance of Asian governments to taper off the economic stimulus
    (2) Greed of Asian investors causing them to trade stocks of American companies at high prices
    (3) Inflated real estate prices in Asian countries
    (A) None
    (B) Only (1)
    (C) Only (3)
    (D) Only (1) and (2)
    (E) Only (2)
    Ans : (D)
    7. What does the author want to convey through the phrase “The world has not changed it has justmoved places” ?
    (A) At present countries are more dependent on Asian economics than on the US economy
    (B) Economies has become interlinked on account of globalisation
    (C) Asian governments are implementing the same economic reforms as developed countries
    (D) All economies are susceptible to recession because of the state of the US economy
    (E) None of these
    Ans : (A)
    8. Which of the following can be said about the Chinese government’s efforts to revive the economy ?
    (A) These were largely unsuccessful as only the housing market improved
    (B) The government’s only concern was to boost investor confidence in stocks
    (C) These efforts were ineffectual as the economy recovered owing to the US market stabilising
    (D) These were appropriate and accomplished the goal of economic revival
    (E) They blindly imitated the economic reforms adopted by the US
    Ans : (B)
    9. Why do experts predict that Asian policy makers will not withdraw fiscal stimulus ?
    (1) The US economy is not likely to recover for a long time
    (2) Stock markets are yet to regain their former levels
    (3) Fear of revolt by greedy citizens
    (A) None
    (B) Only (3)
    (C) Only (1) and (3)
    (D) Only (2)
    (E) Only (2) and (3)
    Ans : (D)
    10. What do the statistics about loans given by Chinese banks in 2009 indicate ?
    (A) There was hardly any demand for loans in 2008
    (B) The Chinese government has borrowed funds from the U.S.
    (C) China will take longer than the US to recover from the economic crisis
    (D) The GDP of China was below expectations
    (E) None of these
    Ans : (D)
    11. Why has investor confidence in the Chinese stock market been restored ?
    (1) Existing property prices which are stable and affordable
    (2) The government has decided to tighten credit
    (3) Healthy growth of the economy indicated by GDP figures
    (A) Only (3)
    (B) Only (1) and (2)
    (C) All (1), (2) and (3)
    (D) Only (2)
    (E) None of these
    Ans : (A)
    12. What is the author’s main objective in writing the passage ?
    (A) Illustrating that Asian economies are financially more sound than those of developed countries
    (B) Disputing financial theories about how recessions can be predicted and avoided
    (C) Warning Asian countries about the dangers of favouring fast growth and profits over sound economic principles
    (D) Extolling China’s incredible growth and urging other countries to emulate it
    (E) Advising governments about the changes in policy to strengthen economic fundamentals
    Ans : (C)
    13. Why does the author doubt the current resurgence of Asian economics ?
    (A) Their economies are too heavily reliant on the American economy which is yet to recover
    (B) Central banks have slashed interest rates too abruptly which is likely to cause stock markets to crash
    (C) With their prevailing economic conditions they are at risk for a financial crisis
    (D) Their GDP has not grown significantly during the last financial year
    (E) None of these
    Ans : (B)
    13. Why does the author doubt the current resurgence of Asian economics ?
    (A) Their economies are too heavily reliant on the American economy which is yet to recover
    (B) Central banks have slashed interest rates too abruptly which is likely to cause stock markets to
    crash
    (C) With their prevailing economic conditions they are at risk for a financial crisis
    (D) Their GDP has not grown significantly during the last financial year
    (E) None of these
    Ans : (B)
    14. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage ?
    (1) All Asian economies are recovering at the same pace
    (2) Experts are apprehensive about the state of Asian economies despite their recovery
    (3) Developed countries should implement the same economies reforms as Asian ones
    (A) Only (1)
    (B) Only (2) and (3)
    (C) Only (1) and (2)
    (D) Only (2)
    (E) None of these
    Ans : (D)
    15. According to the passage, which of the following factor(s) has/ have had a negative impact on the Asian stock markets ?
    (1) Abrupt drop in exports by Asian countries
    (2) Extravagant disbursement of housing loans in 2009
    (3) Raising of interest rates by the Central Bank
    (A) None
    (B) Only (1) and (2)
    (C) Only (1)
    (D) Only (1) and (3)
    (E) All (1), (2) and (3)
    Ans : (B)
    Directions—(Q. 16–18) Choose the word or group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
    16. Fuel
    (A) Petrol
    (B) Stimulate
    (C) Sustain
    (D) Heat
    (E) Charge
    Ans : (B)
    17. Flooded
    (A) Surged
    (B) Saturated
    (C) Overflowed
    (D) Deluge
    (E) Overcome
    Ans : (C)
    18. Evaporated
    (A) Dehydrated
    (B) Melted
    (C) Vaporised
    (D) Vanished
    (E) Dodged
    Ans : (D)
    Directions—(Q. 1920) Choose the word or group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
    19. Buoyed
    (A) Heavy
    (B) Stifled
    (C) Numbed
    (D) Dull
    (E) Abated
    Ans : (E)
    20. Sharp
    (A) Blunt
    (B) Incomplete
    (C) Naive
    (D) Indistinct
    (E) Gradual
    Ans : (E)
    Directions—(Q . 2 1 –30) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical
    mistake/error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the letter of that part with
    error as your answer. If there is ‘No error’, mark (E).
    21. Arranging such a large amount (A) /of funds now will be a problem why (B) / banks are
    usually not open (C) /so early in the morning. (D) No error (E)
    Ans : (C)
    22. He had telephoned yesterday to (A) /ask how much of the youth (B) /who attend our classes
    would be (C) /interested in working for a textile company. (D) No error (E)
    Ans : (B)
    23. Though he has promoted to (A) / the bank’s board as a director (B) / he continues to carry out
    (C) / all his current responsibilities. (D) No error (E)
    Ans : (A)
    24. The Board’s decision has provided (A) / employees with the opportunity (B) / to acquire upto
    100 (C) / shares by the company. (D) No error (E)
    Ans : (D)
    25. If the manufacturing sector continues (A) / to grow at the same rate for (B) / the next few
    months, I think it (C) / has a high growth rate this year. (D) No error (E)
    Ans : (D)
    26. The government is working (A) / out a new system to compensate (B) / those companies to sell
    (C) / products below the market price. (D) No error (E)
    Ans : (C)
    27. The success of the (A) / government sponsor job guarantee programme (B) / has resulted in a
    (C) / drastic drop in poverty. (D) No error (E)
    Ans : (B)
    28. We were forced into react (A) / as no organisation can (B) / afford to adhere to (C) / these outdated regulations. (D) No error (E)
    Ans : (A)
    29. We had extensively discussions (A) / with the participants and (B) / obtained their feedback
    (C) / regarding our new services. (D) No error (E)
    Ans : (A)
    30. Their failure to inspect (A) / our factories is a (B) / clear indications that our (C) / license will
    not be renewed. (D) No error (E)
    Ans : (C)



    Directions—(Q. 31 –35) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e. ‘All correct’ as your answer.
    31. Though these programmes have proved (A) to be extremely (B) effective (C) they do have
    certain drawbacks. (D) All correct (E)
    Ans : (E)
    32. According to these estimates (A) our profitable (B) margin (C) will be higher if we adopt (D)
    this approach. All correct (E)
    Ans : (B)
    33. In order to confront (A) the threat (B) of global warming it is imperative (C) that we work
    altogether. (D) All correct (E)
    Ans : (D)
    34. Any failure (A) to complicit (B) with these fundamental (C) regulations will result in a fine.
    (D) All correct (E)
    Ans : (B)
    35. Every organization needs to be proactive (A) in devising (B) stratergies (C) to ensure the retention (D) in staff. All correct (E)
    Ans : (C)
    Directions—(Q. 36 –40) Rearrange the following six sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 in the proper
    sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—
    1. However if this happens it will cause problems for the elderly who mainly use cheques.
    2. The use of cheques has fallen dramatically in the past few years.
    3. Thus cheques may be phased out gradually making sure that the needs of all consumers including
    the elderly are met.
    4. This is because more and more consumers are transferring money electronically by direct debit or
    credit cards.
    5. Without cheques they are likely to keep large amounts of cash in their homes making them
    vulnerable to theft.
    6. British banks have thus voted to phase cheques out in favour of these more modern payment
    methods.
    36. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
    (A) 1
    (B) 2
    (C) 3
    (D) 4
    (E) 5
    Ans : (C)
    37. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
    (A) 2
    (B) 3
    (C) 4
    (D) 5
    (E) 6
    Ans : (A)
    38. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
    (A) 1
    (B) 2
    (C) 3
    (D) 4
    (E) 6
    Ans : (D)
    39. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
    (A) 2
    (B) 3
    (C) 4
    (D) 5
    (E) 6
    Ans : (E)
    40. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
    (A) 2
    (B) 3
    (C) 4
    (D) 5
    (E) 1
    Ans : (E)
    Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. The World Diabetes Congress has determined that India has the largest number of diabetics in the world. Apart from the loss of productivity, the …(41)… burden is alarming – $ 2.8 billion annually. Sedentary jobs, …(42)… of electronic entertainment, changing diet patterns and …(43)… dependence on automobiles have driven the activity …(44)… of Indians’ lives especially in cities. The …(45)… is, therefore, to make people physically …(46)… and requires interventions which imapct a large …(47)… of the population. Admittedly physical activity is a …(48)… of choice and is strongly driven by …(49)… preferences. But policymaking needs to shift to …(50)… moderate levels of physical activity in the daily lives of people. One way to accomplish this is to create walkable communities that give residents a variety of destinations within walking distance.
    41. (A) economic
    (B) finance
    (C) subsidy
    (D) physical
    (E) health
    Ans : (B)
    42. (A) broadcast
    (B) spread
    (C) prevalent
    (D) expand
    (E) widespread
    Ans : (E)
    43. (A) totally
    (B) entirely
    (C) grown
    (D) mutual
    (E) increasing
    Ans : (E)
    44. (A) most
    (B) out
    (C) from
    (D) through
    (E) outside
    Ans : (B)
    45. (A) ultimatum
    (B) hazard
    (C) sensitivity
    (D) challenge
    (E) dispute
    Ans : (A)
    46. (A) equip
    (B) built
    (C) active
    (D) trained
    (E) qualified
    Ans : (C)
    47. (A) section
    (B) scale
    (C) degree
    (D) per cent
    (E) piece
    Ans : (A)
    48. (A) want
    (B) matter
    (C) scarcity
    (D) right
    (E) lack
    Ans : (B)
    49. (A) showing
    (B) given
    (C) special
    (D) personal
    (E) individually
    Ans : (D)
    50. (A) pursuit
    (B) indulge
    (C) introduce
    (D) insist
    (E) attract
    Ans : (C)